Originally Posted by Pete Fagerlin
I don't see anywhere in that post where he states, let alone implies, that "all drivers generally follow the rules."
Unless you're using Headspeak™ definitions and "without some sort of speed segregation" now has the same meaning as "with some sort of speed segregation."
Brian's argument is that WITHOUT some sort of speed segregation, you have Asia-like disorder.
The logical implication is that WITH some sort of speed segregation, you have (more) order (otherwise, what would be his point)?
But for that speed segregation to have any effect, general following of the rules would have to be implied, no?
Edit: Again, that's why examples of problems due to lack of general following of the rules are irrelevant to this discussion.