Say a person who is not salaried, e.g. he is given x amount of hours a week at y amount of money.
People claim that when his company stops paying him weekly and instead moves him to bi-weekly that they are going to take much more taxes out despite him remaining at the same pay rate.
I do not understand why this is, as tax is a percentage of money. 20% of 1000 bucks is always 200 bucks regardless of how it is given to you as long as that is what is given to you in the same time frame.
I also can't seem to find the proper terms to look up the tax legislation regarding this.
Can anybody clear this up? thanks.