Originally Posted by

**timmyquest**
So i went out with my cousin and some friends her friends...to the church, for some bingo (yeah baby).

Anyways, after a game where we didn't win (again), one of her friends said "It was probably one of those people with a ton of cards." This lead to a discussion on statistics to which i claimed that your odds were the same regardless of how many cards you have. She wouldn't have any of it.

I don't think she's entirely wrong, and i don't think I'm entirely wrong. It's been a few years since I've taken a stats class and none of the statistics i deal with for my schoolwork is related to odds/probability etc.

So, if you have one dice you have a 1/6 chance of rolling a six. If you have two dice, each dice still has a 1/6 chance of rolling a dice. So, your chance is still 1/6 of rolling a 6 right? Or is it 2/12...which is the same thing. Right, i just figured it out didn't I (why didn't i bring that fact up earlier).