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View Poll Results: What do you believe is the explanation for Floyd's A sample? (multi-choice)
Lab errors on both T/E ratio and finding synthetic testosterone. 4 12.50%
Someone sabotaged Floyd's urine sample. 6 18.75%
Someone injected or put a patch on Floyd w/o Floyd knowing. 2 6.25%
Floyd cheated for the first time. 0 0%
Floyd risked a higher than usual steroid dosage this time. 8 25.00%
Floyd's normal dosage unexpectedly produced too much testosterone. 2 6.25%
Floyd's dr. screwed up - told Floyd testosterone would be 3.99:1 or lower by end of stage. 11 34.38%
He didn't take enough epitestosterone to balance out the extra testosterone from his patch. 7 21.88%
Floyd produces synthetic testosterone naturally on solo breakaways. 4 12.50%
Other (specify in post) 1 3.13%
Multiple Choice Poll. Voters: 32. You may not vote on this poll

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Old 08-03-06, 12:06 PM   #1
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What is the true story about Floyd's test results?

So, what do you think is the explanation for Floyd testing with a high T/E ratio and synthetic testosterine in his A sample?
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Old 08-03-06, 12:09 PM   #2
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I think I'm going to wait until we hear what the 'B' sample says before I make any judgments on it.
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Old 08-03-06, 12:25 PM   #3
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The whole point here is to speculate on what the explanation is for the A sample before we know what the B sample results are.
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Old 08-03-06, 12:31 PM   #4
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Other. For the A sample, it looks to me like the results are still within the "margin of error". The body in extremis does all sorts of odd things. It doesn't look good, but it is still possible that there is no definitive evidence of doping.

Accordingly, if the B sample matches it changes nothing, except to rule out error/sabotage.
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Old 08-03-06, 12:35 PM   #5
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Originally Posted by DMF
Other. For the A sample, it looks to me like the results are still within the "margin of error". The body in extremis does all sorts of odd things. It doesn't look good, but it is still possible that there is no definitive evidence of doping.

Accordingly, if the B sample matches it changes nothing, except to rule out error/sabotage.
11:1 is within the margin of error???

Finding any synthetic testosterone in his urine - which can only be administered by injection or patch - is within the margin of error???
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Old 08-03-06, 12:35 PM   #6
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Originally Posted by Helmet Head
The whole point here is to speculate on what the explanation is for the A sample before we know what the B sample results are.
The thread title is "What is the true story...". Few people beyond Floyd know that.

Meanwhile, the actual question in your post asked what I think, and I think I'm going to reserve judgment -- I don't have enough info yet and will give Floyd the benefit of the doubt until the B sample comes in; I think he's owed that much.
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Old 08-03-06, 12:40 PM   #7
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.........the world may never know.........
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Old 08-03-06, 01:07 PM   #8
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11:1 is higher than normal ranges, however, 100:1 was reported for some of the GDR athletes.
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Old 08-03-06, 01:23 PM   #9
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I think he got some help from his doctor either the night before or that morning. He then went on his breakaway, thinking he would be chased and then settle-in at the finish in the top 5. If he stayed back enough to not win the stage, he might not have gotten tested and still made up a lot of time. He was too fast, however, and took the stage anyway.
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Old 08-03-06, 01:24 PM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Trevor98
11:1 is higher than normal ranges, however, 100:1 was reported for some of the GDR athletes.
GDR

100:1

. . .and those were the women!
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Old 08-03-06, 01:38 PM   #11
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Trevor98
11:1 is higher than normal ranges, however, 100:1 was reported for some of the GDR athletes.
Yes, Dr. Kay made this point, without explaining how it might be relevant to Floyd's case.

So, we know that 1:1 is normal, and with huge amounts of steroids you can get it up to 100:1. So??? Especially considering that nowadays they also know how to up the epitestosterone so that the ratio can be kept down despite the high levels of synthetic testosterone.

We also know that they look the other way if your ratio is lower than 4:1, so if a cyclist is going to use a patch, he needs to adjust his dosage so that by the end of the stage enough has dissipated to be below 4:1.
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Old 08-03-06, 01:47 PM   #12
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Another choice is that when he says he's not doping he means he's 'not doping any more than everyone else is'
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Old 08-03-06, 02:59 PM   #13
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My only point was to show scale. 11:1 isn't that high if DDR women were testing at 100:1. I don't know how high the ratio can be before really bad things happen but 11:1 isn't that big. I was not attempting to excuse anything or that anything means anything but just pointing out 11:1 isn't a record breaking level. As for the poll itself, I choose to withhold judgment until I know the pertinent facts from reliable sources. As that will happen in a few days I think that my nerves can stand the wait.
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