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Old 02-03-12, 09:28 PM
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Digital_Cowboy
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Originally Posted by PaPa View Post
Without Probably Cause (see my previous post), this would've been an unlawful stop. So why was it dismissed?
How is knowing that the man has a history of going out and getting drunk and either driving or riding a bicycle not probable cause? Do you want the police to wait until he actually hits and injures or kills someone before they act?
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