Originally Posted by
dynodonn
One could cause a motorist to swerve and cause the motorist to collide with an inanimate object or another vehicle.
In a situation that a cyclist had a history of numerous traffic violations like the motorist in the OP article, then caused the death of a motorist due to the cyclist's poor riding habits, would the same grand jurists return with the same decision?
There was a US case, several years ago, where a woman was riding under the influence of prescription drugs and alcohol caused a driver to swerve to avoid her, crashing into, IIRC, a ditch and being killed, so it's not impossible. There might even be a reference to it on this forum.