Originally Posted by
bikemig
I don't think the "rule" that you are entitled to the depreciated value of the bike fits here. Under most circumstances the depreciated value of the bike makes the injured party whole. It does not in the case.
You had a bike that you could control/shift with one hand. I take it that this is a necessity for the OP. I think that under these circumstances, the OP should be entitled to a similar bike subject to one caveat which is that the price may get so crazy that no judge would grant this in damages.
I agree that the OP should be made whole. I disagree with the caveat. After all, Fords hit Rolls Royces, and the RR owner is not penalized simply because his vehicle is pricey.