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Originally Posted by mr_pedro
(Post 15788883)
I agree, maybe you wrongly quoted me?
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Originally Posted by FBinNY
(Post 15788775)
I hate trying to convinced the already convinced, but I'll give it a shot. The reason that ground speed must be figured into the solution, is that while the rider is riding against the wind drag, he's doing all his work levering the bike forward against a fulcrum on the ground. This is very different from an airplane that thrusts against the wind alone.
If you take a minute to draw free body diagrams of both an airplane (in flight) and a bicycle you'll see the difference, and understand why ground force and distance (work) come into play. If we're ignoring rolling resistance (which is already unphysical), then there is no force that depends on speed relative to the ground (consider a hovercraft instead if you prefer). According to your diagram, what is the difference of the forces acting on a bicycle between (A) a bicycle moving at 30 mph with no wind and (B) a bicycle moving at 10 mph heading into a 20 MPH wind? In both cases, there is a single resistive force of the aerodynamic drag of 30mph acting on a bicycle. In both cases, it takes the same exact effort of the rider. In reality, rolling resistance is not negligible (and does grow with speed). But even with rolling resistance the OPs numbers do not make sense: * Into 20 mph wind, riding at 10 mph * With 20 mph wind, riding at 25 mph Assuming same aerodynamic positioning, this either suggests that rolling resistance* is much bigger than any of us is considering, or that, well, it wasn't a 20 mph wind. Cheers, Charles * I'm throwing in drive train losses with rolling resistance here. |
Originally Posted by cplager
(Post 15788790)
But it's not the same power as defined by the formula. That's the point. (I agree in terms of biomechanics, it is the same power).
Where you are mixing everything up is that the force in Prathmann's equation is not the force applied by the rider on the pedals. It is the force applied by the back wheels on the ground, that is pushing the bike forward. And in your example those forces between back wheel and ground are different for each example. So for example when going at 30 mph the force is 2 times smaller than at 15 mph. Multiplying that with the speed gets you to the same power. |
Originally Posted by cplager
(Post 15788919)
I like your idea of drawing a free body diagram.
If we're ignoring rolling resistance (which is already unphysical), then there is no force that depends on speed relative to the ground (consider a hovercraft instead if you prefer). According to your diagram, what is the difference of the forces acting on a bicycle between (A) a bicycle moving at 30 mph with no wind and (B) a bicycle moving at 10 mph heading into a 20 MPH wind? In both cases, there is a single resistive force of the aerodynamic drag of 30mph acting on a bicycle. There is no difference at all in the force diagram. A point repeatedly made. So why are you repeating the already stated as a question ? rgds, sreten. |
Originally Posted by cplager
(Post 15788919)
I like your idea of drawing a free body diagram.
If we're ignoring rolling resistance, then there is no force that depends on speed relative to the ground (consider a hovercraft instead if you prefer). According to your diagram, what is the difference of the forces acting on a bicycle between (A) a bicycle moving at 30 mph with no wind and (B) a bicycle moving at 10 mph heading into a 20 MPH wind? In both cases, there is a single resistive force of the aerodynamic drag of 30mph acting on a bicycle. In both cases, it takes the same exact effort of the rider. . A bicycle is a machine in the classic sense, so the rider can set his pedaling force to what ever he wants. However the work, force X distance will be the same as the bike's. (not adjusting for frictional losses) So for the same driving force, regardless of gearing the rider's legs will produce the same force through 1/3rd the distance, or he can gear down and produce 1/3rd the force for the same distance. Either way he's producing less work. |
Originally Posted by cplager
(Post 15788208)
If there is no rolling resistance and aerodynamic drag is the only thing that matters, then you can consider this as a change of reference frame. Riding 10 mph faster than the air would be the same, regardless of speed versus the ground, so being able to ride 10 mph with no wind would be identical to being able to ride 30 mph with a 20 mph tail wind. In the case of bicycles this of course isn't true in real life because there is rolling resistance and it is not constant with respect to speed. This is exactly the case with airplanes when calculating drag and fuel consumption.
But as for why you're wrong (if I didn't explain, you'd be sure to ask, and the argument wouldn't be dropped), it's because of what work is, which you've seemed to overlook. The situation CANNOT be considered a change of reference frame, as you claim, and the bike cannot be replaced by an airplane or a hovercraft, unless you complicate the situation further, which is simply counterintuitive. So, lets stick with the bike. W=Fd. I think we can agree on this. But that d is the distance the bike travels with reference to the ground, NOT the air/wind around it, which you seem to have claimed (correct me if I'm wrong, your explanations are a bit hard for me to follow). I mean think about it. If you're not moving at all with respect to the ground, just standing there, in a 20mph headwind, surely that's not the same as moving at 20mph at no wind when it comes to "effort," work, which is what matters. The work in one situation in the first situation is 0, in the second much more. And if you even remotely try to hint that the two are the same, I'm done with the conversation. No point to keep going. And so, if moving at 0mph in 20mph headwind is not the same as moving at 20mph at no wind (with respect to the ground), then moving at 10mph at 20mph headwind is not the same as moving at 30mph at 0mph wind. And since the first is true, so is the second. Now, case closed? Please? |
Originally Posted by vanttila
(Post 15789198)
Now, case closed? Please?
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Originally Posted by cplager
(Post 15788919)
In reality, rolling resistance is not negligible (and does grow with speed). But even with rolling resistance the OPs numbers do not make sense: * Into 20 mph wind, riding at 10 mph * With 20 mph wind, riding at 25 mph Assuming same aerodynamic positioning, this either suggests that rolling resistance* is much bigger than any of us is considering, or that, well, it wasn't a 20 mph wind. Cheers, Charles * I'm throwing in drive train losses with rolling resistance here. Your saying my reported real world numbers don't make sense (to you). Well you clearly don't know physics or science, where your job is to make sense of empirical evidence, not complain the evidence must be wrong. Take a single gear bike at 10 mph and no wind, and 30mph with a 20mph tailwind. For the latter pedalling at double rpm does nothing. You have to pedal at triple the rpm of 10 mph against the same pedal resistance (If you can at 3 times the 10mph cadence) to do 30mph with the 20mph wind, outputting 3 times as much power as 10mph no wind. I'll let you work out why my real world numbers actually do make sense, and why your attitude to analysing a problem basically sucks, ignoring the correct analyses already given in the thread. rgds, sreten. I did posit why can I do ~ 10mph into a ~ 20mph wind and only ~ 25 mph with the same ~ 20mph wind as a tailwind, what was confusing me ? That was answered properly quite promptly. |
Originally Posted by FBinNY
(Post 15788775)
The reason that ground speed must be figured into the solution, is that while the rider is riding against the wind drag, he's doing all his work levering the bike forward against a fulcrum on the ground. This is very different from an airplane that thrusts against the wind alone.
This bit of clarification - that the rider is propelling himself forward from the ground - is the key to differentiating a cyclist from airplane. Thanks for helping me understand it. My intuitive-physics mind still wants to hold the airplane analogy, but now I have the rational explanation to know why it doesn't actually work that way. |
Originally Posted by TallRider
(Post 15790306)
... My intuitive-physics mind still wants to hold the airplane analogy ... Anything on any legs would be in a lot of trouble if that was true. Spare a thought for small insects, air drag to weight ratio is phenomenal. The reason they can cling onto walls and ceilings is simply they need to be able to cling onto the ground at relative G forces we cannot imagine. The physics of the small compared to large is fascinating. rgds, sreten. |
Here's a bit of a different scenario:
Our city is mostly East/West and given the choice I usually opt to ride into a strong wind and have it on my back for the return trip. I don't use a computer, but rather a stopwatch for given distances. I'm talking about a 22 km route, mostly on MUP. Surprisingly my times have been slightly better (3 - 5 min) with the wind on my back going out and fighting it on the return trip. My rationale is that I am stronger starting out and therefore take more advantage of the tail wind, than being tired from bucking the wind. Not being as tired for the return trip may give me more energy while going into the wind. |
Originally Posted by GTryder
(Post 15790664)
Here's a bit of a different scenario:
Our city is mostly East/West and given the choice I usually opt to ride into a strong wind and have it on my back for the return trip. I don't use a computer, but rather a stopwatch for given distances. I'm talking about a 22 km route, mostly on MUP. Surprisingly my times have been slightly better (3 - 5 min) with the wind on my back going out and fighting it on the return trip. My rationale is that I am stronger starting out and therefore take more advantage of the tail wind, than being tired from bucking the wind. Not being as tired for the return trip may give me more energy while going into the wind. If you do it all in one go that makes a lot of sense. You warm up with the wind and hammer the return against. rgds, sreten. You will never get any sort of sensible returns in time hammering downhill and/or with the wind, compared to hammering uphill and/or into the wind, aerodynamics. |
Originally Posted by TallRider
(Post 15790306)
This bit of clarification - that the rider is propelling himself forward from the ground - is the key to differentiating a cyclist from airplane. Thanks for helping me understand it. My intuitive-physics mind still wants to hold the airplane analogy, but now I have the rational explanation to know why it doesn't actually work that way.
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Newton's Third Law FTW!
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