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Old 06-04-05, 07:00 PM   #1
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Sorry to open yet another knee pain thread, but today on my ride I started getting knee pain in my left knee around mile 10 that lasted most of the rest of the trip. Around the same time my knee started hurting, I realized I hadn't eaten little carbs and not much today (just 3 eggs, a bagel with creamcheese, a cinnamon bun, and a glass of cranberry juice today).

A little history about my knee: It's been smashed into pavement countless times. It creaks when I stand up, but rarely actually hurts anymore. The only way you can tell something has happened to it is when it creaks.

Anyway, I remember reading somewhere that if you don't get enough glucose in a certain amount of time, your joints start to ache. Since my left knee has been banged up more than my right, I assume that I was lacking enough glucose to make my injured knee ache without my other knee being affected. Am I right that this can happen, or am I imagining things?

Thanks in advance

Last edited by TheKillerPenguin; 06-04-05 at 07:12 PM.
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Old 06-05-05, 02:40 AM   #2
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I don't know about glucose deficiency, but if I were you I'd go back and read what you posted in another thread about riding up hills in 53x12, and then start thinking whether you still want to be riding bikes in 10 years time. I've had to be ery careful with my left knee since hurting it in an accident, and I know two friends-of-friends who've buggered their knees by pushing huge gears and had to stop riding before they were 30. So if your knees have been hurt in the past, be very careful, I'd say.
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