Originally Posted by
dabac
Indeed they are, but the increase that they see in load is much less than the decrease in load seen by the spokes immediately below the hub. The difference is so big in comparison that one can argue that the load increase for the upper spokes aren't significant. (for a given wheel configuration of course.)
Explain how that is possible. For a given force applied to the hub at the axle, the hub will deflect some amount relative to the centerline of the rim. This will result in an increase in tension for some spokes with a decrease in tension in other spokes. All spokes are starting out with tension applied and assuming a reasonably built wheel, will still have some amount of residual tension even with the decrease as a result of the load. How do you conclude that these changes will be so largely disproportionate that the increases can be basically ignored?