Originally Posted by
Road Fan
They use (220-age)*0.95 to set the max for testing, because that's what the testing protocol tells them to do in order to use standard guidelines to interpret the data.
I have a problem with this. If they test me with this protocol, they'll only get me to about 77% of my MHR. That may be too low to reveal lurking problems. Conversely, if my MHR was on the low side, they'd be trying to push me to an unattainable figure and might think I have a problem because I can't reach the goal. I just don't see how "standard guidelines" that fail to account for differences in MHR can hold water. Do me a favor. When you discuss the results with your Docs, ask them about this.