Originally Posted by
badbradclark
Based on what I read, he pleaded guilty to two traffic violations, which don't sound like criminal charges to me.
Felony, misemeanor and a violation are all criminal. How can pleading guilty to two traffic violations which lead to the death of a person not criminal? I don't understand...if someone violates traffic law, that's a form of neglect. If that neglect leads to the injury or death of someone else, that's criminal neglect. Am I missing something?