Originally Posted by
vw02
Referring to the part in the law that states you have to be able to skid (rear brake), has no one attempted to show the law the physics behind the front wheel brake being more effective? just curious. I'm in school for engineering right now, and we literally just did a problem the other day discussing the stopping distances for a bike/car who's front or rear brake failed taking into account center of mass, moments, friction, angular vel and acc, etc. Obviously the front brake wins, also why cars have much larger front rotors than the back...
Read that mucky is an engineer, you've probably tried this?
based on a google search:
"21201. (a) No person shall operate a
bicycle on a roadway unless it is equipped with a brake which will enable the operator to make one braked wheel skid on dry, level, clean pavement."
i think them not putting the front only solution on the language is a
cover-their-ass clause to do with liability with the fact that stopping with only a front brake will fulcrum the rest of the bike including you forward which will result in injury, which we all know. also i cant find the part where they specify the issue of front only or rear only.
we all also know that front
can still skid if accomanied by a rear when both brakes are applied simutaneously. i think "both at the same time" was the intent of their language and intent of the professional who wrote the language.
also yea i remember that problem~ dont think i was into bikes yet LOL
@tt <3 muckybrake™ 5.1.2011
TL : DR,
that law needed to be rewritten like 4.5 years ago.