Originally Posted by
weshigh
I don't like that logic. If you are riding in the street next to a bike lane, but not in it, and a car hits you... Does that mean you are at fault? I know there are other rules about peds in the street etc..
If there is someone jogging/running in the bike lane that "forced" the cyclist into the travel lane then the jogger/runner is at least partially at fault, as if the jogger/runner wasn't there than the cyclist wouldn't have been forced out into the travel lane as it were.