Originally Posted by
John Forester
The aphorism that "Cyclists fare best when they act and are treated as drivers of vehicles" is derived from a great wealth of material and not at all from studies of the average behavior of American cycling populations, which are irrelevant in this context.
But you linked a study, which you undertook, with values set by you, with analysis of the results by you and used it as evidence that "cyclists fare best when...". ( you placed it in contrast to cyclists using bike lanes).Is such a study
only relevant if
you did the study and
not relevant if you did not conduct the study?
And what is the source of the "great wealth of material" of which you speak? Am I to assume that, once again, it is material gathered by you and you alone?
I am even more confused.
