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Old 12-06-05 | 07:52 AM
  #26  
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Placid Casual
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From: SoCal
Originally Posted by Serendipper
I only used it in one example, and you would have to be insane or obtuse to miss the implied lesson.
I did edit the post, nonetheless, ass hole.
Thank you, but I'm afraid you haven't fixed the problem. It is, in fact, true that "be" cannot be used as an adverb; and it is certainly not generally regarded that "be" cannot be used as a verb (it's the single most commonly used verb in the English language, after all).

At this point, I'm not sure what exactly you meant to convey. Maybe you meant that it's generally regarded that "be" cannot properly be used as a present indicative verb without an auxiliary, e.g. "I be sick"? If so, the general public is right to think so, for the most part. I can think of one exception, though: the subjunctive mood ("if that be the case," "that every man be armed," etc.).

Or were you talking about something else?
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