Originally Posted by
jeichelberg87
What about it simply having to do with his views on operating under the influence and not whether a person uses marijuana for recreation or medicinal purposes?
He didn't mention impairment in general or in any way which could be construed to encompass things like alcohol or prescription drugs, but did specifically cite his fear that things like this would happen with legalization for recreational use... which has no bearing on this particular case, where the offender was a medical MJ user.