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Old 11-06-16 | 08:59 AM
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Moe Zhoost
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Originally Posted by AlexCyclistRoch
In this example you have provided, I fail to see how an accident where a motorist does a 'left hook' maneuver causing a car-cycle collision could be ANYTHING other than a wholly at-fault accident caused by the motorist. Can you explain how it could be anything else? How such an unusual and risky maneuver as this could allow any 'contributory negligence' by a bicyclist? I can't see how it could....
Hey, I agree with you. Being savvy about recognizing the possibility of a dangerous vehicle maneuver is what keeps us safe. We should not be "required by law" to exercise this skill; however this seems to be the way things are when the 'system' assigns blame. The "proximate clause" tests in these cases seem to like to regularly identify the lack of savviness on the part of the cyclist as a substantial factor in the incident, diluting the contribution of the real cause. I think this is outrageous. More outrageous it the thought that I would be financially responsible for the dents in a vehicle that left-hooked me.

Every time I think our equality as road users is almost there, I see crap like this and it brings me back to reality.
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