Originally Posted by traildragon
I've posted this response already in another thread, but here goes again:
People, are we NOT LISTENING?! This all doesn't make sense. I'm sure the B test will match the A test, Floyd himself said he expects that. The epitestosterone isn't a performance enhancing or de-hancing drug, so the fact that his testosterone level was relatively low, but his testosterone/epitestosterone RATIO was high means, and trust me here, I'm a mathematician, that his epitestosterone level had to be way low. How is THAT doping?
Also, it's been stated by many that his other tests obviously were clean, and that to take testosterone for one day would be foolish - steroids need to be taken in 6-12 week cycles, with some period between each cycle, to be effective and do what they're supposed to do. If he was doping (and I've already stated that his testosterone levels were relatively low, so this is a big IF) the testosterone levels would be high, and would have triggered a positive in other tests. Everyone needs to do some research on the situation before we all go out and hang this man.
Source?
Do you have any source saying his testosterone level is relatively low? Not an argument from silence just because testosterone level is not mentioned. I have not seen any and I have read the WSJ article one other poster cited. It said no such thing.
So far all I've seen is (mainly sloppy) news reports saying his testosterone level was high and more professional ones saying that the 'positive' test is for the ratio.
Unless you can cite a source at this point all we know is the ratio was outside the allowable, perhaps as high as 11:1. We have no idea if the testosterone level was 'normal', low or just one point below the max allowable. I do think the argument from silence is pretty strong for the testosterone level not being above the allowable max.