According to your logic, no. Assertion 1 by HH: You cannot follow the rules consistently without being vigilant. So if you are not being vigilant, you are not following the rules consistently. So if you are being vigilant 50% of the time, then (according to you) the other 50% of the time you are not following the rules consistently. So overall, are you, or aren't you following the rules consistently?

Are you saying that you can be vigilant 50% of the time, and still follow the rules consistently?

EDIT: (hint, according to your post, yes you are....)