Originally Posted by
frymaster
you should really read up on the recovered factory movement in argentina. the situation in the vast majority of instances involved employers who owed more money in unpaid wages to their employees than the assessed value of the factory. rather than just let the whole business collapse into a pile of dust and debt, the workers of said factories opted to occupy and produce while pursuing a negotiation with the government to basically trade the factory in lieu of unpaid wages.
Well if the factory owner owes them backwages and they agree to accept ownership of the factory in lieu of wages to satisfy that debt, then I have no problem with that. Now my question is did they each trade their wages for the equivilent of segmented shares of stock (or some other form of capital contribution) in the company, or do you mean that the goverment took control of the factory "in the name of the workers" or some such nonsense?