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Transportation Research Board Reports that US Lags Way Behind Other Nations in Safety

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Transportation Research Board Reports that US Lags Way Behind Other Nations in Safety

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Old 11-19-10, 10:06 AM
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Originally Posted by genec
But where this whole subdiscussion fails is that it is based on the thinking that our laws are not as draconian as the laws in Europe... and yet here we have a examples of the hoops one has to jump through to avoid alcohol screening, and the fact that attempting to avoid such screening can have your license pulled.

The bottom line is that laws with regard to alcohol stops are not to be trifled with.

Folks, don't drive drunk. Now let's move away from subtopic. If anything, "proving" that our alcohol laws are less restrictive merely "proves" that indeed the US Lags Way Behind Other Nations in Safety.
Since the report mentioned that several of those other nations institute blanket drug and alcohol screenings at checkpoints and such behavior is unconstitutional in the US (as opposed to screenings based upon impairment) they are more draconian. In general none of the nations studied place the same degree of respect for individual liberty that the US does.

One of the prices one pays for preserving one's own liberty is that your neighbor may be a stupid f%&^ who does things that place you in danger.

BTW, the study doesn't support that those countries have better safety records. It supports that they had a greater degree of improvement. Which in due to the fact that they used to be so much worse than we were. In essence, all they have done is caught up.
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Old 11-19-10, 10:14 AM
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Originally Posted by closetbiker
but the question is the general reliability of information FARS provides. AFAIK, FARS is a reliable supplier of information. Is there any reason to assume FARS would be off base with some information while being a reliable source for other information?
In terms of something directly measured like bicycle fatalities, I can't think of any reason it would be less reliable. In terms of applying those fatality levels to generate rates per mile of travel it has the sampling problem I mentioned earlier. There simply doesn't appear to be a large enough sampling of cyclists trips to make such data reliable. Unlike motor vehicle trips which first have much larger and more frequent sampling and also have a strong correlation to a measurable piece of information (gasoline sales/consumption), cycling will rely solely on study samples.

Currently such studies are rare and small, and as such there is a much greater margin of error (compared to studies of motor vehicles) when using them to infer characteristics about the whole population.
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Old 11-19-10, 10:15 AM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
Since the report mentioned that several of those other nations institute blanket drug and alcohol screenings at checkpoints and such behavior is unconstitutional in the US (as opposed to screenings based upon impairment) they are more draconian. In general none of the nations studied place the same degree of respect for individual liberty that the US does.

One of the prices one pays for preserving one's own liberty is that your neighbor may be a stupid f%&^ who does things that place you in danger.

BTW, the study doesn't support that those countries have better safety records. It supports that they had a greater degree of improvement. Which in due to the fact that they used to be so much worse than we were. In essence, all they have done is caught up.
Ride a bike in some of those countries and you'll see they have more than "caught up."

BTW I was always taught that my freedom ends at the next guys nose... therefore if my neighbor is "a stupid f%&^ who does things that place me in danger" he has overstepped his bounds of freedom.
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Old 11-19-10, 10:18 AM
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Originally Posted by genec
Ride a bike in some of those countries and you'll see they have more than "caught up."
And yet, the actual data doesn't support that conclusion...

That is one of the problems with anecdotes like "riding a bike in some of those countries."
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Old 11-19-10, 01:03 PM
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Originally Posted by DX-MAN
Disc brakes started appearing on most cars in '70-71
There's nothing wrong with drum brakes -- they work. Disc brakes may provide more braking for a brake of a given size and may be easier to work on (in my limited experience), but since ultimately your braking is limited by your tire's traction on the road, I don't think disc brakes qualify as an innovation that has made roads safer.

And besides, my 2010 Honda Fit has rear drum brakes! (No idea why. Perhaps to save some money? The rear brakes are less important, granted, but I'd think the logistical benefit to having four matching brakes would be more important than a small amount of money saved.)

Daytime running lights are a joke; the touted benefit comes from their status as a rarity. Make them ubiquitous, and the benefit will evaporate.
Rare? Really? It seems to me that over 50% of the cars on the road have them nowadays.
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Old 11-19-10, 01:15 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
And yet, the actual data doesn't support that conclusion...

That is one of the problems with anecdotes like "riding a bike in some of those countries."
Oh so there are more cyclist deaths by automobile collision, per capita, in the countries mentioned, than in the US?

Of course in any set of numbers, one can skew them anyway they want to get the results you want... for instance: typically cycling in the US is declared safe as there are fewer deaths per cycling hour than there are deaths per motoring hour, but what about if we compare mileage, oops cyclists don't fare so well. But what if we look at general health... do cyclists tend to be healthier than motorists?

So there are a variety of ways to view the data...
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Old 11-19-10, 01:37 PM
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Originally Posted by genec
Oh so there are more cyclist deaths by automobile collision, per capita, in the countries mentioned, than in the US?

Of course in any set of numbers, one can skew them anyway they want to get the results you want... for instance: typically cycling in the US is declared safe as there are fewer deaths per cycling hour than there are deaths per motoring hour, but what about if we compare mileage, oops cyclists don't fare so well. But what if we look at general health... do cyclists tend to be healthier than motorists?

So there are a variety of ways to view the data...

referenced study wasn't about just cyclists deaths. It was concerning all highway fatalities.

Frankly, given the information available in the report I have no idea if these other countries are safer for cyclists--and frankly neither do you.

Since there is no US information available with reliable (statistically reliable means the data is sufficient to infer population stats with a degree of confidence) data of the number of cycling trips nor the mileage of those trips it is impossible to adjust the deaths by those values to determine such death rates in a statistically valid manner.
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Old 11-19-10, 02:01 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
referenced study wasn't about just cyclists deaths. It was concerning all highway fatalities.

Frankly, given the information available in the report I have no idea if these other countries are safer for cyclists--and frankly neither do you.

Since there is no US information available with reliable (statistically reliable means the data is sufficient to infer population stats with a degree of confidence) data of the number of cycling trips nor the mileage of those trips it is impossible to adjust the deaths by those values to determine such death rates in a statistically valid manner.
Oh so my "off hand comment" could be correct, but because "it is not in the data" you'll just deny it.

Gets right back to my other statement: I was always taught that my freedom ends at the next guys nose... therefore if my neighbor is "a stupid f%&^ who does things that place me in danger" he has overstepped his bounds of freedom.
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Old 11-19-10, 02:37 PM
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Originally Posted by genec
Oh so my "off hand comment" could be correct, but because "it is not in the data" you'll just deny it.
I'm not denying it, I'm stating that you are making an assumption based solely on your personal prejudices. You have no data to support your statement. Its purely an opinion. And therefore has no value in the discussion at hand, which was discussing the comparative safety of the roads in the studied nations.

And to use your analogy, just because your neighbor might someday punch you in your nose, doesn't mean you can put him in jail for assault before he does. In other words, the possibility of a crime is not justification for violating human rights (for instance, protection from unreasonable search and seizure) to prevent the crime.
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Old 11-19-10, 03:12 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
I'm not denying it, I'm stating that you are making an assumption based solely on your personal prejudices. You have no data to support your statement. Its purely an opinion. And therefore has no value in the discussion at hand, which was discussing the comparative safety of the roads in the studied nations.

And to use your analogy, just because your neighbor might someday punch you in your nose, doesn't mean you can put him in jail for assault before he does. In other words, the possibility of a crime is not justification for violating human rights (for instance, protection from unreasonable search and seizure) to prevent the crime.
Since cycling is done on the roads in the nations in discussion, relative safety of cyclists on such roads is a valid discussion. And yes, that is my opinion... based on the fact that this is a bicycle discussion group.

Regarding my neighbor, I may indeed be able to put him in jail before he actually throws a punch... as assault is defined as:

1. An intentional, unlawful threat or "offer" to cause bodily injury to another by force;
2. Under circumstances which create in the other person a well-founded fear of imminent peril;
3. Where there exists the apparent present ability to carry out the act if not prevented.
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Old 11-19-10, 03:20 PM
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Originally Posted by genec
Since cycling is done on the roads in the nations in discussion, relative safety of cyclists on such roads is a valid discussion. And yes, that is my opinion... based on the fact that this is a bicycle discussion group.
This thread was discussing the relative safety of the roads in the different countries as documented in the TRB report the OP referenced. You are simply attempting to muddy the waters with your agenda and not contributing to the thread.

Originally Posted by genec
Regarding my neighbor, I may indeed be able to put him in jail before he actually throws a punch... as assault is defined as:

1. An intentional, unlawful threat or "offer" to cause bodily injury to another by force;
2. Under circumstances which create in the other person a well-founded fear of imminent peril;
3. Where there exists the apparent present ability to carry out the act if not prevented.
So you decide to defend your analogy rather than realized that I was in fact referring to the original point. In the US, the police can not perform blanket drug or alcohol testing simply because some of the drivers may be violating the law. You know one of those "draconian" measures other countries in the study do allow?
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Old 11-19-10, 03:32 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
This thread was discussing the relative safety of the roads in the different countries as documented in the TRB report the OP referenced. You are simply attempting to muddy the waters with your agenda and not contributing to the thread.
The thread is on a bicycle message board and was posted due to the fact that the OP apparently feels that other countries safer drivers than those in the US. Perhaps you didn't realize that we cyclists share the road with motorists.

Originally Posted by myrridin

So you decide to defend your analogy rather than realized that I was in fact referring to the original point. In the US, the police can not perform blanket drug or alcohol testing simply because some of the drivers may be violating the law. You know one of those "draconian" measures other countries in the study do allow?
We have alcohol check points here in CA, and to refuse to do the test means you lose your license. Now how does that differ from the "draconian measures" of other countries?
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Old 11-19-10, 03:49 PM
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Originally Posted by genec
The thread is on a bicycle message board and was posted due to the fact that the OP apparently feels that other countries safer drivers than those in the US. Perhaps you didn't realize that we cyclists share the road with motorists.
Yes, yes, your beliefs are very apparent. However, the thread is about a report containing facts and recommendations. believe what you want.



Originally Posted by genec
We have alcohol check points here in CA, and to refuse to do the test means you lose your license. Now how does that differ from the "draconian measures" of other countries?
I have already explained the difference several times. I am incapable of making it any clearer. Perhaps you should work on comprehension. The bottom line is that even in Kalifornia you can refuse such a test and avoid any criminal liability without due process, that is not the case in some of the referenced countries.
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Old 11-19-10, 04:09 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin


I have already explained the difference several times. I am incapable of making it any clearer. Perhaps you should work on comprehension. The bottom line is that even in Kalifornia you can refuse such a test and avoid any criminal liability without due process, that is not the case in some of the referenced countries.
23612. (a) (1) (A) A person who drives a motor vehicle is deemed to have given his or her consent to chemical testing of his or her blood or breath for the purpose of determining the alcoholic content of his or her blood, if lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly committed in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153. If a blood or breath test, or both, are unavailable, then paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) applies.

(D) The person shall be told that his or her failure to submit to, or the failure to complete, the required chemical testing will result in a fine, mandatory imprisonment if the person is convicted of a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, and (i) the suspension of the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of one year, (ii) the revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of two years if the refusal occurs within 10 years of a separate violation of Section 23103 as specified in Section 23103.5, or of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153, or of Section 191.5 or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of the Penal Code that resulted in a conviction, or if the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 for an offense that occurred on a separate occasion, or (iii) the revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of three years if the refusal occurs within 10 years of two or more separate violations of Section 23103 as specified in Section 23103.5, or of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153, or of Section 191.5 or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of the Penal Code, or any combination thereof, that resulted in convictions, or if the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked two or more times pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 for offenses that occurred on separate occasions, or if there is any combination of those convictions or administrative suspensions or revocations.

"Due process" here is the administrative removal of your license. How is this different from the laws of the countries we are discussing.
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Old 11-19-10, 04:16 PM
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Originally Posted by genec
23612. (a) (1) (A) A person who drives a motor vehicle is deemed to have given his or her consent to chemical testing of his or her blood or breath for the purpose of determining the alcoholic content of his or her blood, if lawfully arrested for an offense allegedly committed in violation of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153. If a blood or breath test, or both, are unavailable, then paragraph (2) of subdivision (d) applies.

(D) The person shall be told that his or her failure to submit to, or the failure to complete, the required chemical testing will result in a fine, mandatory imprisonment if the person is convicted of a violation of Section 23152 or 23153, and (i) the suspension of the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of one year, (ii) the revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of two years if the refusal occurs within 10 years of a separate violation of Section 23103 as specified in Section 23103.5, or of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153, or of Section 191.5 or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of the Penal Code that resulted in a conviction, or if the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 for an offense that occurred on a separate occasion, or (iii) the revocation of the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle for a period of three years if the refusal occurs within 10 years of two or more separate violations of Section 23103 as specified in Section 23103.5, or of Section 23140, 23152, or 23153, or of Section 191.5 or subdivision (a) of Section 192.5 of the Penal Code, or any combination thereof, that resulted in convictions, or if the person’s privilege to operate a motor vehicle has been suspended or revoked two or more times pursuant to Section 13353, 13353.1, or 13353.2 for offenses that occurred on separate occasions, or if there is any combination of those convictions or administrative suspensions or revocations.

Due process here is the administrative removal of your license. How is this different from the laws of the countries we are discussing.

You do have a reading comprehension problem don't you?

Simply refusing the test is not a criminal violation. They can revoke the license because there is case law establishing that a driver's license is a privilege not a right. They can only compel the tests when there is probable cause and that usually requires a warrant issued by a judge. That is what is meant by due process. There is sufficient legal precedent that sobriety checkpoints do not allow the cops to compel the tests without some reasonable suspicion of intoxication. Simply refusing the test is not a sufficient cause. Of course, the officer can confiscate your DL, but even then most folks who have their licensed revoked using that basis, get it reinstated when they take their case to court.
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Old 11-19-10, 04:45 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
You do have a reading comprehension problem don't you?

Simply refusing the test is not a criminal violation. They can revoke the license because there is case law establishing that a driver's license is a privilege not a right. They can only compel the tests when there is probable cause and that usually requires a warrant issued by a judge. That is what is meant by due process. There is sufficient legal precedent that sobriety checkpoints do not allow the cops to compel the tests without some reasonable suspicion of intoxication. Simply refusing the test is not a sufficient cause. Of course, the officer can confiscate your DL, but even then most folks who have their licensed revoked using that basis, get it reinstated when they take their case to court.
You have a reality problem don't you.

Thanks for admitting that They can revoke the license because there is case law establishing that a driver's license is a privilege not a right.



BTW I like your conditional "usually requires a warrant;" that is not the case in implied consent states. You have already given permission to the drug test by driving on the roads. Try not to haphazardly mix up the laws of different states in your rebuttals.

Now how exactly is that any "less draconian" than what you might encounter in other countries?
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Old 11-19-10, 04:52 PM
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Originally Posted by genec
You have a reality problem don't you.

Thanks for admitting that They can revoke the license because there is case law establishing that a driver's license is a privilege not a right.



BTW I like your conditional "usually requires a warrant;" that is not the case in implied consent states. You have already given permission to the drug test by driving on the roads. Try not to haphazardly mix up the laws of different states in your rebuttals.

Now how exactly is that any "less draconian" than what you might encounter in other countries?
Implied consent does not prevent a citizen from revoking the consent and refusing the test. Again you seem to be unable to understand even the law cites you posted.

The loss of a license is by no means the same as being forcibly subjected to a medical test, nor the same as being thrown in jail.. You know those draconian measures I referenced.

I said usually requires a warrant since there are occasional exigent circumstances that allow them to compel such testing. Typically being involved in a accident where the officer has a reasonable suspicion that alcohol was involved. Not the same as a random/blanket road stop.

Anyway, I am done trying to discuss this with you. Have fun in your delusions!
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Old 11-19-10, 05:14 PM
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Originally Posted by myrridin
Implied consent does not prevent a citizen from revoking the consent and refusing the test. Again you seem to be unable to understand even the law cites you posted.

The loss of a license is by no means the same as being forcibly subjected to a medical test, nor the same as being thrown in jail.. You know those draconian measures I referenced.

I said usually requires a warrant since there are occasional exigent circumstances that allow them to compel such testing. Typically being involved in a accident where the officer has a reasonable suspicion that alcohol was involved. Not the same as a random/blanket road stop.

Anyway, I am done trying to discuss this with you. Have fun in your delusions!
Refusing the test results in a year long loss of license... what part of the that did you not understand. Is jail the only punishment that means anything to you?

Thanks for playing.
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